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ISC CCSP certification exam is a comprehensive exam that requires candidates to demonstrate their knowledge and understanding of a wide range of cloud security topics. CCSP exam consists of 125 multiple-choice questions, and candidates have four hours to complete the exam. Candidates must score at least 700 out of 1000 points to pass the exam. CCSP exam is available in English, Japanese, and Portuguese.

The CCSP certification program covers a range of topics, including cloud concepts, architecture, design, operations, compliance, and security. It is designed for professionals who are responsible for managing cloud security in organizations, including security managers, IT managers, security architects, and consultants. Certified Cloud Security Professional certification program is also suitable for individuals who want to enhance their knowledge and skills in cloud security and advance their careers in the field. The CCSP Certification program is recognized by major cloud service providers, including Amazon Web Services, Microsoft Azure, and Google Cloud Platform, making it a valuable credential for professionals working in cloud environments.

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The demand for cloud security professionals has increased rapidly over the past few years, as more and more businesses are moving their operations to the cloud. With the increasing adoption of cloud-based technologies, there is a growing need for professionals who can provide effective security solutions to protect sensitive data and ensure the security of cloud-based applications and services.

ISC Certified Cloud Security Professional Sample Questions (Q93-Q98):

NEW QUESTION # 93
Which of the following threat types involves an application developer leaving references to internal information and configurations in code that is exposed to the client?

A. Unvalidated redirect and forwards
B. Security misconfiguration
C. Sensitive data exposure
D. Insecure direct object references

Answer: D

Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
An insecure direct object reference occurs when a developer has in their code a reference to something on the application side, such as a database key, the directory structure of the application, configuration information about the hosting system, or any other information that pertains to the workings of the application that should not be exposed to users or the network. Unvalidated redirects and forwards occur when an application has functions to forward users to other sites, and these functions are not properly secured to validate the data and redirect requests, allowing spoofing for malware of phishing attacks.
Sensitive data exposure occurs when an application does not use sufficient encryption and other security controls to protect sensitive application data. Security misconfigurations occur when applications and systems are not properly configured or maintained in a secure manner.

NEW QUESTION # 94
Which aspect of SaaS will alleviate much of the time and energy organizations spend on compliance (specifically baselines)?

A. Maintenance
B. Standardization
C. Licensing
D. Development

Answer: B

Explanation:
Explanation
With the entire software platform being controlled by the cloud provider, the standardization of configurations and versioning is done automatically for the cloud customer. This alleviates the customer's need to track upgrades and releases for its own systems and development; instead, the onus is on the cloud provider.
Although licensing is the responsibility of the cloud customer within SaaS, it does not have an impact on compliance requirements. Within SaaS, development and maintenance of the system are solely the responsibility of the cloud provider.

NEW QUESTION # 95
What type of PII is controlled based on laws and carries legal penalties for noncompliance with requirements?

A. Contractual
B. Regulated
C. Jurisdictional
D. Specific

Answer: B

Explanation:
Explanation
Regulated PII involves those requirements put forth by specific laws or regulations, and unlike contractual PII, where a violation can lead to contractual penalties, a violation of regulated PII can lead to fines or even criminal charges in some jurisdictions. PII regulations can depend on either the jurisdiction that applies to the hosting location or application or specific legislation based on the industry or type of data used.

NEW QUESTION # 96
Which of the following best describes the Organizational Normative Framework (ONF)?

A. A framework of containers for some of the components of application security, best practices, catalogued and leveraged by the organization
B. A container for components of an application's security, best practices catalogued and leveraged by the organization
C. A set of application security, and best practices, catalogued and leveraged by the organization
D. A framework of containers for all components of application security, best practices, catalogued and leveraged by the organization.

Answer: D

Explanation:
Explanation
Option B is incorrect, because it refers to a specific applications security elements, meaning it is about an ANF, not the ONF. C is true, but not as complete as D, making D the better choice. C suggests that the framework contains only "some" of the components, which is why B (which describes "all" components) is better

NEW QUESTION # 97
An audit scope statement defines the limits and outcomes from an audit. Which of the following would NOT be included as part of an audit scope statement?

A. Exclusions
B. Billing
C. Certification
D. Reports

Answer: B

Explanation:
Billing for an audit, or other cost-related items, would not be part of an audit scope statement and would instead be handled prior to the actual audit as part of the contract between the organization and auditors.
Reports, exclusions to the scope of the audit, and required certifications on behalf of the systems or auditors are all crucial elements of an audit scope statement.

NEW QUESTION # 98
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